We use cookies to ensure you have the best browsing experience on our website. Please read our cookie policy for more information about how we use cookies.
Day 3: Conditional Probability
Day 3: Conditional Probability
Sort by
recency
|
184 Discussions
|
Please Login in order to post a comment
I think I figured it out via naive reasoning. We know that they have two kids, so, marking a boy as 1 and a girl as 0, there are four options as to what they can be: 00, 01, 10 and 11. Now, we know that one is a boy, so it can't be 00. Thus, there are three options, of which only one, option 11, is what we are looking for. Thus the probability is 1/3.
Sex probability is an INDEPENDENT event. Thus every time the sex is 50/50.
This is a bad example of conditional probability. How does the sex of the first child affect the probability of the sex of the second child? These are independent events.
I was so confused that I was calculating the probability that the gender of the second child is "male", instead of calculating the probability that both children are boys... 1/3
Bayes' theorem is a powerful tool for problems like this. Let's use it to solve the problem.
Let ( B_1 ) be the event that the first child is a boy and ( B_2 ) be the event that the second child is a boy.
We want to find the probability that both children are boys given that at least one of them is a boy. In terms of events, we want to find:
[ P(B_1 \cap B_2 | B_1 \cup B_2) ]
Using Bayes' theorem:
[ P(B_1 \cap B_2 | B_1 \cup B_2) = \frac{P(B_1 \cup B_2 | B_1 \cap B_2) \times P(B_1 \cap B_2)}{P(B_1 \cup B_2)} ]
Now, let's break down each of these probabilities:
( P(B_1 \cup B_2 | B_1 \cap B_2) ): If both children are boys, then the probability that at least one of them is a boy is 1. So, ( P(B_1 \cup B_2 | B_1 \cap B_2) = 1 ).
( P(B_1 \cap B_2) ): This is the probability that both children are boys. Since the children's genders are independent and each has a ( \frac{1}{2} ) chance of being a boy, ( P(B_1 \cap B_2) = \frac{1}{2} \times \frac{1}{2} = \frac{1}{4} ).
( P(B_1 \cup B_2) ): This is the probability that at least one child is a boy. From our initial list of combinations (BB, BG, GB, GG), three of them have at least one boy. So, ( P(B_1 \cup B_2) = \frac{3}{4} ).
Plugging these values into Bayes' theorem:
[ P(B_1 \cap B_2 | B_1 \cup B_2) = \frac{1 \times \frac{1}{4}}{\frac{3}{4}} = \frac{1}{3} ]
So, using Bayes' theorem, we again find that the probability that both children are boys, given that at least one of them is a boy, is ( \frac{1}{3} ).