This is one of the more awfully written and described questions I have seen on this platform.

1. Player 1 in the example clearly had more than the 2 moves. How about 4 % 2 == 0?
2. Players lose if there is 1 block remaining. But why is 1 % 0 == 0 not possible again?
3. Every player can remove all but 1 block, and this greedy approach just gives you a pre-determined winner every time.

If m == 1 and player 1 starts, then apparently player 1 does not have any remaining moves and player 2 wins??